General Paper 1 Booklet Code W
Paper – I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
1. Break-down in verbal communication
is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
Answer:(D)
2. The Telephone Model of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
Answer:(D)
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for
2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
Answer:(D)
4. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure
(C) decode (D) change
Answer:(C)
5. The grains that appear on a television
set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks (B) green dots
(C) snow (D) rain drops
Answer:(C)
6. In circular communication, the
encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D) feedback
Answer:(D)
7. In a post-office, stamps of three
different denominations of INR 7, INR 8,
INR 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
Answer:(A)
8. In certain coding method, the word
QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
Answer:(C)
9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....
is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35
Answer:(C)
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,
PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR
Answer:(A)
11. A man started walking from his house
towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
Answer:(C)
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99
without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
Answer:(A)
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little
bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.”
The argument put above may be
called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical (D) Causal
Answer:(A)
14. Given below are some characteristics
of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to
follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.
Answer:(C)
15. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation between those two
propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern
Answer:(C)
16. Given below are two premises and
four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:(C)
17. Given below is a diagram of three
circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Answer:(B)
18. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
Answer:(C)
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer:(D)
20. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
Answer:(D)
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer:(A)
22. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
Answer:(C)
23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
Answer:(A)
24. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI
Answer:(D)
25. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
Answer:(C)
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
Answer:(B)
27. Which one of the following is not the
same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
Answer:(D)
28. Identify the IP address from the
following :
(A) 300 - 215 - 317 - 3
(B) 302 - 215@ 417 - 5
(C) 202.50.20.148
(D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148
Answer:(C)
29. The population of India is about 1.2
billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 × 106
kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
Answer:(X)
30. Which of the following cities has been
worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
Answer:(D)
31. The primary source of organic
pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
Answer:(C)
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of
material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves
Answer:(A)
33. In order to avoid catastrophic
consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C
(B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C
(D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
Answer:(A)
34. The National Disaster Management
Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
Answer:(C)
35. Match List – I and List – II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List – I List – II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of
vibratory waves through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven
distribution of water
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer:(A)
36. Which one of the following green
house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer:(C)
37. Consider the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
Answer:(X)
38. Who among the following is the de
facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer:(B)
39. Education as a subject of legislation
figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer:(C)
40. Which of the following are Central
Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:(A)
41. Consider the statement which is
followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.
Answer:(A)
42. Which of the following universities
has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer:(B)
43. Which of the following statements are
correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The President occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:(C)
44. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the
students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer:(A)
45. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
Answer:(C)
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Answer:(C)
47. The e-content generation for under-
graduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational
Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
Answer:(B)
48. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
Answer:(B)
49. Who among the following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
Answer:(C)
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are
included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself
Answer:(D)
51. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
Answer:(C)
52. The research approach of Max Weber to
understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
Answer:(D)
53. Which one of the following is a non-
probability sampling ?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
Answer:(B)
54. Identify the category of evaluation
that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
Answer:(C)
55. The research stream of immediate
application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
Answer:(B)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
Answer:(B)
.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
Answer:(B)
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
Answer:(A)
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
Answer:(A)
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry
Answer:(D)
Paper – I
Note : • This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks.
• Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions.
• In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will
be evaluated.
1. Break-down in verbal communication
is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
Answer:(D)
2. The Telephone Model of
Communication was first developed
in the area of
(A) Technological theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory
Answer:(D)
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for
2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
Answer:(D)
4. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure
(C) decode (D) change
Answer:(C)
5. The grains that appear on a television
set when operated are also referred to
as
(A) sparks (B) green dots
(C) snow (D) rain drops
Answer:(C)
6. In circular communication, the
encoder becomes a decoder when
there is
(A) noise (B) audience
(C) criticality (D) feedback
Answer:(D)
7. In a post-office, stamps of three
different denominations of INR 7, INR 8,
INR 10 are available. The exact amount
for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
Answer:(A)
8. In certain coding method, the word
QUESTION is encoded as
DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word
RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
Answer:(C)
9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, ....
is continued in the same pattern,
which one of the following is not a
term of this series ?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35
Answer:(C)
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML,
PP, ...........by choosing one of the
following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR
Answer:(A)
11. A man started walking from his house
towards south. After walking 6 km, he
turned to his left and walked 5 km.
Then he walked further 3 km after
turning left. He then turned to his left
and continued his walk for 9 km. How
far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
Answer:(C)
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99
without the digits 2 and 7. How many
numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
Answer:(A)
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little
bits, it will lose its value just as an
army is divided up into small units of
soldiers, it loses its strength.”
The argument put above may be
called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical (D) Causal
Answer:(A)
14. Given below are some characteristics
of logical argument. Select the code
which expresses a characteristic
which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to
follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal
relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively
follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on
observation and experiment.
Answer:(C)
15. If two propositions having the same
subject and predicate terms can both
be true but can not both be false, the
relation between those two
propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern
Answer:(C)
16. Given below are two premises and
four conclusions drawn from those
premises. Select the code that
expresses conclusion drawn validly
from the premises (separately or
jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:(C)
17. Given below is a diagram of three
circles A, B & C inter-related with
each other. The circle A represents the
class of Indians, the circle B
represents the class of scientists and
circle C represents the class of
politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent
different regions. Select the code
containing the region that indicates
the class of Indian scientists who are
not politicians.
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Answer:(B)
18. Which of the following sources of
Irrigation has registered the largest
percentage of decline in Net area under
irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
Answer:(C)
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has
registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated
area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer:(D)
20. In which of the following years, Net
irrigation by tanks increased at the
highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
Answer:(D)
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that
has recorded the maximum incidence
of negative growth in terms of Net
irrigated area during the years given
in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells
(D) Other sources
Answer:(A)
22. In which of the following years, share
of the tube wells and other wells in the
total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
Answer:(C)
23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol
(D) File Transfer Procedure
Answer:(A)
24. Which one of the following is not a/an
image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI
Answer:(D)
25. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
Answer:(C)
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is
loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
Answer:(B)
27. Which one of the following is not the
same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
Answer:(D)
28. Identify the IP address from the
following :
(A) 300 - 215 - 317 - 3
(B) 302 - 215@ 417 - 5
(C) 202.50.20.148
(D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148
Answer:(C)
29. The population of India is about 1.2
billion. Take the average consumption
of energy per person per year in India
as 30 Mega Joules. If this
consumption is met by carbon based
fuels and the rate of carbon emissions
per kilojoule is 15 × 106
kgs, the total
carbon emissions per year from India
will be
(A) 54 million metric tons
(B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons
(D) 2400 million metric tons
Answer:(X)
30. Which of the following cities has been
worst affected by urban smog in
recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
Answer:(D)
31. The primary source of organic
pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas
(B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial effluents
Answer:(C)
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of
material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves
(D) strong winds and water waves
Answer:(A)
33. In order to avoid catastrophic
consequences of climate change, there
is general agreement among the countries
of the world to limit the rise in average
surface temperature of earth compared
to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C
(B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C
(D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
Answer:(A)
34. The National Disaster Management
Authority functions under the Union
Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
Answer:(C)
35. Match List – I and List – II and select
the correct answer from the codes
given below :
List – I List – II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of
sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of
vibratory waves through the rocks
of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted
substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven
distribution of water
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer:(A)
36. Which one of the following green
house gases has the shortest residence
time in the atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
Answer:(C)
37. Consider the following statements and
select the correct answer from the
code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest
solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed
wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind
power is contributed by Tamil
Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium
in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i and iv
Answer:(X)
38. Who among the following is the de
facto executive head of the Planning
Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
Answer:(B)
39. Education as a subject of legislation
figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
Answer:(C)
40. Which of the following are Central
Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University
4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:(A)
41. Consider the statement which is
followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).
Statement : India should have a very
strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in
eliminating corruption
in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage
honest officers from
making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the arguments is
strong.
Answer:(A)
42. Which of the following universities
has adopted the meta university
concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad University
(D) Pondicherry University
Answer:(B)
43. Which of the following statements are
correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established
under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the
visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to
nominate some members to the
Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the
University.
4. The President occasionally
presides over the meetings of the
Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the
code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:(C)
44. Which one of the following is
considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions
(B) Maximum attendance of the
students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D) Students taking notes
Answer:(A)
45. Which one of the following is the best
method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
Answer:(C)
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
Answer:(C)
47. The e-content generation for under-
graduate courses has been assigned by
the Ministry of Human Resource
Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for Educational
Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
Answer:(B)
48. Classroom communication is normally
considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
Answer:(B)
49. Who among the following,
propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
Answer:(C)
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are
included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate chapter
(C) the concluding chapter
(D) the text itself
Answer:(D)
51. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
Answer:(C)
52. The research approach of Max Weber to
understand how people create meanings
in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative paradigm
Answer:(D)
53. Which one of the following is a non-
probability sampling ?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
Answer:(B)
54. Identify the category of evaluation
that assesses the learning progress to
provide continuous feedback to the
students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D) Summative
Answer:(C)
55. The research stream of immediate
application is
(A) Conceptual research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental research
(D) Empirical research
Answer:(B)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of
state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to
each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
Answer:(B)
.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of
history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
Answer:(B)
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations
(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity
(D) Disregard for social law
Answer:(A)
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
Answer:(A)
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry
Answer:(D)